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NEW QUESTION # 47
Which of the following statements describes a characteristic of non-traded real estate investment trusts (REITs)?
Answer: D
Explanation:
A key characteristic of non-traded (non-exchange-listed) REITs is limited liquidity, making A correct. Unlike publicly traded REITs that trade on exchanges and can be sold during market hours, non-traded REIT shares do not have an active public secondary market. Investors often must rely on limited redemption programs (if offered) or wait for a liquidity event (such as listing, merger, or liquidation), which can take years. As a result, investors may face difficulty selling shares quickly or at a predictable price, which is the essence of liquidity risk.
Choice B is misleading because many non-traded REITs are still registered securities sold via broker-dealers;
"non-traded" does not automatically mean "private." Some non-traded REITs are registered but not exchange listed. Choice C is the opposite of non-traded: if it is listed on an exchange, it is a traded REIT. Choice D describes open-end funds that calculate a daily NAV for purchases/redemptions; non-traded REITs do not function like mutual funds with daily NAV transactions (even though some may provide periodic valuations, that is not the defining "strike daily NAV" feature tested on the SIE).
This question tests product knowledge and risk recognition: non-traded REITs may offer income potential and real estate exposure, but the trade-off is often reduced transparency, higher fees, and notably limited liquidity compared with exchange-traded REITs or ETFs.
NEW QUESTION # 48
Which of the following responses best describes the primary strategy that an investor uses when selling a covered call?
Answer: A
Explanation:
A covered call involves selling a call option on a stock the investor already owns. The strategy generates income in the form of the premium collected for selling the call, providing additional returns on the stock position.
* D is correctbecause the primary goal of a covered call is to generate income.
* Ais incorrect because covered calls do not hedge against large declines in the stock price.
* Bis incorrect because speculation involves taking higher risks, not a covered call's conservative strategy.
* Cis incorrect because no strategy guarantees a profit.
NEW QUESTION # 49
A customer calls his registered representative (RR) with a request to hold all mail for the next six weeks.
During the call, the RR checks his files and finds a letter from the customer for a similar request made the prior year. Despite a suggestion to convert to electronic statements via the firm website, the customer prefers paper statements. Holding this customer ' s mail is:
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is A, permissible if the customer provides written instructions. Under FINRA rules, specifically regarding holding customer mail, a firm may hold mail for a customer only if proper written authorization is obtained and certain conditions are met.
Step-by-step, firms must receive current written instructions from the customer specifying the time period for holding mail. While FINRA generally limits mail holds to no more than three months, a six-week (approximately 1.5 months) request is well within the allowable timeframe. Therefore, the duration itself is not a violation.
Choice B is incorrect because prior authorization does not carry forward-each mail hold request requires new written instructions. Choice C is incorrect because the allowable limit is three months, not one month.
Choice D is incorrect because opting out of electronic delivery does not prohibit mail holding; customers still have the right to request mail be held.
NEW QUESTION # 50
Which of the following statements is typically true of investors in open-end mutual funds?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is B, Class A share investors do not pay a sales charge when redeeming shares. Class A shares are known as front-end load funds, meaning the sales charge is paid at the time of purchase, not when the shares are sold.
Step-by-step, Class A shares are purchased at the public offering price (POP), which includes the net asset value (NAV) plus the front-end sales charge. Once the investor has paid this upfront load, there is typically no additional sales charge upon redemption.
Choice A is incorrect because Class A shares do have a front-end sales charge when purchased. Choice C is incorrect because Class C shares are typically purchased at NAV (no front-end load), not POP. Choice D is incorrect because Class C shares often have a contingent deferred sales charge (CDSC) if redeemed within a short period (usually one year), meaning investors may pay a fee if they sell early.
Thus, the key distinguishing feature is that Class A shares charge at purchase, not redemption, making Answer B correct.
NEW QUESTION # 51
An investor sells shares of a closed-end fund at the market. Which of the following responses best describes the net proceeds to be received?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Step by Step Explanation:
* Closed-End Funds: Trade on exchanges like stocks, and the investor receives the bid price (market price) minus any applicable commissions.
* Incorrect Options:
* A & B: NAV applies to open-end mutual funds, not closed-end funds.
* D: POP applies to initial sales of mutual fund shares.
References:
* SEC Guidance on Closed-End Funds: SEC Closed-End Funds.
NEW QUESTION # 52
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